ACME ACADEMY

WEEKLY EVALUATION TEST

Subject: Biology
Time Limit: 120 Mins
Max Marks: 399 Marks
Student Name:
Roll Number:
Class / Sec:
Date:

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

  1. All questions are compulsory. Carefully read all instructions before starting.
  2. The question paper contains 399 questions.
  3. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.
  4. Use of mobile phones, smartwatches, or calculators is strictly prohibited during the exam.
1. Which of the following best describes the main event in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Fixation of CO₂ into carbohydrate
(B) Splitting of water and formation of ATP and NADPH
(C) Release of CO₂ and consumption of ATP
(D) Absorption of CO₂ and release of oxygen
2. During the light reactions of photosynthesis, what happens to water?
[1 Mark]
(A) It is produced as a by - product
(B) It is split to produce oxygen, electrons, and protons
(C) It is fixed into carbohydrates
(D) It remains unchanged
3. Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) ATP
(B) NADPH
(C) Oxygen
(D) Glucose
4. In Photosystem II (PS II), the reaction center chlorophyll is known as P680 because it:
[1 Mark]
(A) Absorbs light optimally at 700 nm
(B) Absorbs light optimally at 680 nm
(C) Has 680 chlorophyll molecules
(D) Is 680 times more efficient than PS I
5. Photolysis of water (splitting of water) takes place in which part of the chloroplast?
[1 Mark]
(A) Granal thylakoid lumen
(B) Stroma
(C) Stroma lamellae
(D) Chloroplast envelope
6. The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
(B) Water (H₂O)
(C) Glucose
(D) Chlorophyll
7. The light - dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Stroma of chloroplasts
(B) Thylakoid membranes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Cytoplasm
8. Which of the following statements is true regarding cyclic photophosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) It produces both ATP and NADPH.
(B) It involves only Photosystem I.
(C) It results in the evolution of oxygen.
(D) It requires both PS I and PS II.
9. Which component is NOT directly required for the light reactions of photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) ADP
(B) NADP⁺
(C) CO₂
(D) H₂O
10. What is the role of chlorophyll in the light reactions?
[1 Mark]
(A) Binding and releasing CO₂
(B) Absorbing photons to excite electrons
(C) Synthesizing ATP
(D) Transporting electrons between carriers
11. During noncyclic photophosphorylation, which of the following occurs?
[1 Mark]
(A) Only ATP is produced.
(B) Only NADPH is produced.
(C) ATP , NADPH and oxygen are produced.
(D) Glucose is produced.
12. How many molecules of oxygen are produced when four molecules of water are split during the light reactions?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
13. In terms of energy, the conversion that occurs in the light reactions is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Chemical energy to light energy
(B) Light energy to electrical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy (ATP , NADPH)
(D) Chemical energy to kinetic energy
14. Which of the following is the immediate source of electrons in Photosystem II during the light reactions?
[1 Mark]
(A) NADPH
(B) Water
(C) ATP
(D) Chlorophyll a
15. Which of the following happens in the lumen of the thylakoid during the light reactions?
[1 Mark]
(A) CO₂ fixation
(B) Splitting of water to produce O₂ and protons
(C) Regeneration of RuBP
(D) Synthesis of glucose
16. What is the ultimate electron acceptor in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Oxygen
(B) CO₂
(C) NADP⁺
(D) Water
17. The Hill reaction refers to the photochemical reaction of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Reduction of NADP⁺ to NADPH by PSI
(B) Splitting of water by PSII releasing oxygen
(C) Photochemical reduction of an artificial electron acceptor (producing O₂)
(D) Carboxylation of RuBP in the dark
18. New MCQs: 1. Which pigment is the primary light - harvesting pigment in photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Carotene
(D) Xanthophyll
19. Accessory pigments in plants play all of the following roles EXCEPT:
[1 Mark]
(A) Expanding the range of absorbed wavelengths
(B) Protecting chlorophyll from photo - oxidation
(C) Directly capturing CO₂
(D) Transferring excitation energy to chlorophyll a
20. Which pigment gives plants their green color?
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Both chlorophyll a and b
(D) Carotene
21. In which part of the spectrum does chlorophyll a show maximum absorption?
[1 Mark]
(A) Green and Yellow
(B) Blue and Red
(C) Ultraviolet
(D) Infrared
22. Which of the following is NOT a photosynthetic pigment?
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Xanthophyll
(D) Anthocyanin
23. Xanthophyll is a pigment that absorbs:
[1 Mark]
(A) Blue and red light
(B) Blue and green light
(C) Orange and red light
(D) Green and yellow light
24. Carotenoids in leaves can be seen most easily in autumn because:
[1 Mark]
(A) They are synthesized at high rates
(B) Chlorophyll degrades revealing the carotenoid colors
(C) They produce new green pigment
(D) They convert to glucose
25. Photosynthesis can occur in all of the following plant parts EXCEPT:
[1 Mark]
(A) Green leaves
(B) Green stems
(C) Red petals of flowers
(D) Unripe green fruits
26. Which pigment is considered an accessory pigment and not found in chloroplasts of higher plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a
(B) Xanthophyll
(C) Phycocyanin
(D) Carotene
27. The basic structure of a chlorophyll molecule is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Porphyrin ring with magnesium and phytol tail
(B) Polypeptide chain
(C) Lipid molecule
(D) Nucleic acid
28. Which of the following statements is true?
[1 Mark]
(A) Only chlorophyll a is involved in the reaction centers
(B) Chlorophyll b is an accessory pigment
(C) Carotenoids cannot transfer energy to chlorophyll a
(D) Chlorophyll a absorbs green light most efficiently
29. Engelmann’s experiment using filamentous algae demonstrated that:
[1 Mark]
(A) Blue and red light are most effective for photosynthesis
(B) Green light is most effective for photosynthesis
(C) Oxygen is not released by plants
(D) Only one pigment works for photosynthesis
30. The observed action spectrum of photosynthesis closely resembles the absorption spectrum of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Xanthophyll
(D) Carotene
31. Which pigment transfers energy to chlorophyll a by resonance?
[1 Mark]
(A) Accessory pigments (chlorophyll b, carotenoids)
(B) Chlorophyll a itself
(C) RuBisCO
(D) Cytochromes
32. A plant lacking all accessory pigments except chlorophyll a would:
[1 Mark]
(A) Not be able to absorb green light
(B) Absorb only blue and red light
(C) Not be able to conduct photosynthesis
(D) Lose its green color
33. Which color of light is least effective for driving photosynthesis in most plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) Red
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Yellow
34. Which pigment has peak absorption at 662 nm and 430 nm wavelengths?
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Carotene
(D) Phycobilin
35. Photosystem II differs from Photosystem I in that PS II:
[1 Mark]
(A) Has reaction center chlorophyll P700
(B) Generates NADPH
(C) Provides electrons by oxidizing water
(D) Has lower redox potential than PSI
36. The reaction center of Photosystem I absorbs at:
[1 Mark]
(A) 680 nm
(B) 700 nm
(C) 450 nm
(D) 550 nm
37. Which statement about photosystems is false?
[1 Mark]
(A) PS I is mainly involved in NADPH production
(B) PS II splits water to supply electrons
(C) PS II has a reaction center named P680
(D) PS I and PS II are found only in mitochondria
38. Which component is common to both Photosystem I and II?
[1 Mark]
(A) They both have a chlorophyll a reaction center
(B) Both produce oxygen
(C) Both receive electrons from water
(D) Both operate at 700 nm
39. Where are Photosystem I complexes predominantly located?
[1 Mark]
(A) Granum thylakoids
(B) Stroma lamellae
(C) Inner chloroplast envelope
(D) Cell membrane
40. During noncyclic electron flow, which is true?
[1 Mark]
(A) Electron goes from PSI to PSII
(B) Electron cycles around PSI only
(C) Electron goes from PSII to PSI and then to NADP⁺
(D) NADPH is oxidized to release energy
41. The primary role of the pigments in the reaction center of a photosystem is to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Fix carbon dioxide
(B) Absorb light and transfer energy to the electron acceptor
(C) Synthesize ATP
(D) Pump protons
42. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosystem I – P680
(B) Photosystem II – NADPH production
(C) Photosystem I – P700
(D) Photosystem II – CO₂ fixation
43. Plastoquinone is associated with which part of the photosynthetic apparatus?
[1 Mark]
(A) PSI
(B) PSII (as an electron carrier)
(C) Calvin cycle
(D) Stroma lamellae only
44. Ferredoxin is an iron - sulfur protein that primarily interacts with:
[1 Mark]
(A) PSII
(B) Cytochrome b₆f
(C) PSI
(D) RuBisCO
45. The source of electrons for Photosystem II comes from:
[1 Mark]
(A) Water
(B) NADPH
(C) CO₂
(D) Chlorophyll itself
46. Which of the following statements is correct?
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosystem I pumps protons across the thylakoid membrane.
(B) Photosystem II is only active under green light.
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves Photosystem I only.
(D) Noncyclic photophosphorylation does not produce NADPH.
47. The principal pigment in the reaction center of Photosystem II is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Chlorophyll a (P680)
(B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Carotene
(D) Xanthophyll
48. Which of the following does NOT occur in Photosystem I?
[1 Mark]
(A) Generation of ATP
(B) Splitting of water (photosplitting)
(C) Reduction of NADP⁺
(D) Absorption of far - red light
49. During cyclic electron flow in photosynthesis:
[1 Mark]
(A) Water is oxidized.
(B) NADPH is produced.
(C) Only ATP is produced.
(D) Oxygen is evolved.
50. Which metal ion is found at the oxygen - evolving complex of Photosystem II?
[1 Mark]
(A) Magnesium
(B) Iron
(C) Manganese
(D) Zinc
51. Which of the following is not a function of the cytochrome b₆f complex?
[1 Mark]
(A) ShuƩling electrons between PSII and PSI
(B) Pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane
(C) Transferring electrons to plastocyanin
(D) Catalyzing the fixation of carbon dioxide
52. The "Z - scheme" in photosynthesis refers to:
[1 Mark]
(A) The shape of the absorption spectrum
(B) The electron transport chain diagram connecting water to NADP⁺
(C) The Calvin cycle pathway
(D) A type of leaf venation
53. The Emerson enhancement effect demonstrated that:
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosynthesis rate increases linearly with light intensity.
(B) Two wavelengths of light produce more photosynthesis than either alone.
(C) Only red light drives photosynthesis.
(D) Green light is most effective.
54. Red drop refers to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Sudden decrease in photosynthetic yield beyond 680 nm
(B) Loss of chlorophyll in autumn
(C) Emission of red light by chlorophyll
(D) Increase in absorption at red wavelengths
55. In the Z - scheme, which of the following is true about P680?
[1 Mark]
(A) It has higher oxidizing power than P700 when excited.
(B) It has lower oxidizing power than P700.
(C) It never transfers electrons.
(D) It directly fixes CO₂.
56. In the Z - scheme, which molecule is reduced at the end of the light reactions?
[1 Mark]
(A) Ferredoxin
(B) NADP⁺ (to NADPH)
(C) ADP
(D) CO₂
57. Which phenomenon could not be explained by a single - photosystem model?
[1 Mark]
(A) Oxygen evolution
(B) Emerson enhancement effect (two - light requirement)
(C) Hill reaction
(D) Calvin cycle
58. The Z - scheme model shows that:
[1 Mark]
(A) PSI precedes PSII in the electron flow
(B) PSII precedes PSI in the electron flow
(C) Both PS operate independently
(D) Only cyclic flow occurs
59. Which experiment provided evidence for the two - photosystem concept of photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Engelmann’s bacterial lens experiment
(B) Emerson’s red - drop experiment
(C) Mayer’s frog experiment
(D) Calvin’s carbon tracing
60. In the context of the Z - scheme, P680 and P700 refer to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Types of reaction center chlorophylls with specific peak absorption
(B) Wavelengths of light emiƩed by chlorophyll
(C) Names of enzymes in the Calvin cycle
(D) Photosynthetic pigments in bacteria
61. What is the significance of the Z - shape of the energy diagram in photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) It reflects the shape of the chloroplast
(B) It shows electrons gain energy in two steps (from PSII and PSI)
(C) It describes growth paƩern of plants
(D) It is unrelated to photosynthesis
62. If a leaf is illuminated with only far - red light (>700 nm), the efficiency of photosynthesis:
[1 Mark]
(A) Is high due to PSI activation alone
(B) Is low (Emerson effect)
(C) Is same as with red light
(D) Increases linearly with intensity
63. Combining red light (680 nm) and far - red light (>700 nm) causes:
[1 Mark]
(A) No change in photosynthesis rate
(B) Decrease in photosynthesis
(C) Increase in photosynthesis rate beyond additive effects (Emerson enhancement)
(D) Inhibition of photosynthesis
64. The two photosystems in the Z - scheme absorb light and then transfer electrons via:
[1 Mark]
(A) The same electron transport chain one aŌer the other
(B) Different electron carriers (e.g., plastoquinone vs. ferredoxin)
(C) Cytochrome c only
(D) NADP⁺ directly
65. Which statement accurately describes the energy changes in the Z - scheme?
[1 Mark]
(A) Electron energy decreases throughout the chain.
(B) Electron energy increases at PSII, decreases through cyt b6f, then increases at PSI.
(C) Electron energy is constant.
(D) Electron energy decreases, then increases, then decreases.
66. Which is NOT a feature of the Z - scheme?
[1 Mark]
(A) It illustrates the redox potentials of carriers
(B) It shows electron flow from water to NADP⁺
(C) It indicates ATP production directly
(D) It involves both PSII and PSI
67. In photosynthesis, the “primary acceptor” of an excited electron (at PSII) is:
[1 Mark]
(A) ATP
(B) Reaction center chlorophyll
(C) An electron acceptor such as pheophytin
(D) NADPH
68. Which of the following correctly describes the Z - scheme sequence of events?
[1 Mark]
(A) PSI → PSII → NADP⁺ → ATP
(B) H₂O → PSII → PSI → NADP⁺
(C) CO₂ → Calvin cycle → glucose
(D) Light → ATP → NADPH
69. Photophosphorylation refers to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Formation of ATP using energy from light
(B) Formation of ATP in mitochondria
(C) Fixation of CO₂
(D) Breakdown of glucose
70. Which of the following statements correctly describes cyclic photophosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) It produces ATP and NADPH.
(B) It involves only Photosystem I.
(C) It produces oxygen.
(D) It uses water as electron source.
71. In noncyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons originate from:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADPH
(B) P700
(C) Water
(D) O₂
72. The process of ATP generation in chloroplasts during photophosphorylation is primarily driven by:
[1 Mark]
(A) A proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane (chemiosmosis)
(B) Direct capture of light by ATP
(C) Splitting of CO₂
(D) Photolysis of water alone
73. Which enzyme synthesizes ATP during photophosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) RuBisCO
(B) ATP synthase (CF₁ - CF₀ complex)
(C) NADP⁺ reductase
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
74. In cyclic photophosphorylation:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADPH is produced
(B) Protons are pumped into the stroma
(C) ATP is produced via electron flow returning to PSI
(D) Water is oxidized
75. How does the rate of cyclic photophosphorylation compare to noncyclic photophosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) It always produces more ATP .
(B) It occurs only when NADP⁺ is in short supply.
(C) It occurs only under high light intensities.
(D) It requires the Calvin cycle.
76. Photophosphorylation is called “noncyclic” when:
[1 Mark]
(A) Electron flow returns to the same chlorophyll molecule
(B) Electron flow ends at NADP⁺ (producing NADPH)
(C) ATP is not synthesized
(D) No light is involved
77. What distinguishes photophosphorylation from oxidative phosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) Photophosphorylation uses light energy to generate a proton gradient
(B) Photophosphorylation occurs in mitochondria
(C) Photophosphorylation does not involve ATP synthesis
(D) They are essentially the same process
78. The number of ATP molecules generated per NADPH in noncyclic photophosphorylation is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 3
(D) Not fixed (generally greater than 1)
79. Which factor limits the rate of photophosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) Availability of ATP
(B) Availability of ADP and Pi
(C) Availability of light and NADP⁺
(D) Availability of oxygen
80. During photophosphorylation, protons accumulate in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Stroma
(B) Inside thylakoid lumen
(C) Outside chloroplast
(D) Cytoplasm
81. The energy for ATP synthesis during the light reactions ultimately comes from:
[1 Mark]
(A) Photons boosting electron energy
(B) NADPH hydrolysis
(C) Glucose breakdown
(D) Carbon fixation
82. Which of the following does NOT happen during cyclic photophosphorylation?
[1 Mark]
(A) ATP generation
(B) NADPH generation
(C) Electron return to chlorophyll a (PSI)
(D) Proton gradient formation
83. The main difference between cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cyclic produces NADPH, noncyclic does not.
(B) Noncyclic produces NADPH and uses both PS I and II; cyclic does not produce NADPH.
(C) Cyclic requires PS II.
(D) Noncyclic does not involve electron transport.
84. The “CF₁ - CF₀ complex” in chloroplasts is analogous to what mitochondrial structure?
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH dehydrogenase
(B) Cytochrome c oxidase
(C) ATP synthase
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
85. One rotation of ATP synthase in chloroplasts yields about:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1 ATP
(B) 3 ATP
(C) 10 ATP
(D) 20 ATP
86. The enzyme responsible for carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Hexokinase
(B) RuBisCO (Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase/Oxygenase)
(C) PEP carboxylase
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
87. The Calvin cycle occurs in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Thylakoid membranes
(B) Stroma of chloroplasts
(C) Mitochondrial matrix
(D) Cytoplasm
88. The first stable product of the Calvin cycle in C₃ plants is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Oxaloacetic acid
(B) Glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate
(C) Phosphoglyceric acid (3 - PGA)
(D) Ribulose - 1,5 - bisphosphate
89. For the fixation of 6 molecules of CO₂ in the Calvin cycle, how many molecules of glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate (G3P) are produced (total)?
[1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 2
90. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to fix one molecule of CO₂ in the Calvin cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1 ATP , 1 NADPH
(B) 3 ATP , 2 NADPH
(C) 2 ATP , 2 NADPH
(D) 2 ATP , 1 NADPH
91. If glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate (G3P) from the Calvin cycle is used to form glucose, how many turns of the cycle are needed?
[1 Mark]
(A) 3 turns
(B) 6 turns
(C) 2 turns
(D) 9 turns
92. One of the main functions of the Calvin cycle is:
[1 Mark]
(A) To produce ATP
(B) To fix CO₂ into carbohydrate
(C) To split water
(D) To generate oxygen
93. Which molecule is regenerated at the end of the Calvin cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) ATP
(B) NADP⁺
(C) Ribulose - 1,5 - bisphosphate (RuBP)
(D) Glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate
94. During the Calvin cycle, the two molecules of 3 - phosphoglycerate produced from CO₂ fixation are:
[1 Mark]
(A) Exported to the cytoplasm
(B) Split into CO₂ and RuBP
(C) Phosphorylated and reduced to G3P using ATP and NADPH
(D) Used to regenerate PEP
95. The Calvin cycle can be divided into three phases. Which of the following is NOT one of these phases?
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbon fixation
(B) Reduction phase
(C) Regeneration of RuBP
(D) Oxidative phosphorylation
96. The enzyme RuBisCO has both carboxylase and oxygenase activities. At high O₂ concentrations, RuBisCO will:
[1 Mark]
(A) Only act as carboxylase
(B) Also act as oxygenase, leading to photorespiration
(C) Not function at all
(D) Produce more glucose
97. In C₄ plants, the initial fixation of CO₂ by PEP carboxylase yields:
[1 Mark]
(A) 3 - phosphoglycerate
(B) Oxaloacetate (a 4 - carbon compound)
(C) Pyruvate
(D) RuBP
98. Which of the following is an essential requirement of the Calvin cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) Light (directly)
(B) Products of light reactions (ATP and NADPH)
(C) Presence of sunlight
(D) High O₂ concentration
99. The molecule 3 - phosphoglycerate (3 - PGA) is produced when CO₂ combines with:
[1 Mark]
(A) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(B) Ribulose - 1,5 - bisphosphate
(C) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(D) NADP⁺
100. Which statement about the Calvin cycle is true?
[1 Mark]
(A) It releases oxygen.
(B) It requires ATP and NADPH generated by light reactions.
(C) It occurs only in the dark.
(D) It produces water.
101. How many molecules of ATP are consumed in the Calvin cycle for the fixation of three molecules of CO₂?
[1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 12
102. The reduction phase of the Calvin cycle produces:
[1 Mark]
(A) Glucose directly
(B) Glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate (G3P)
(C) ATP
(D) Oxygen
103. Photorespiration refers to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Fixation of CO₂ in the dark
(B) Photo - oxidation of sugars
(C) Oxygenation of RuBP by RuBisCO, leading to CO₂ release
(D) Only occurring in C₄ plants
104. Photorespiration is typically:
[1 Mark]
(A) Beneficial as it produces extra ATP
(B) A wasteful process consuming O₂ and ATP
(C) Only occurring at night
(D) The same as respiration
105. Which condition increases photorespiration in C₃ plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) Low light intensity
(B) High O₂ concentration relative to CO₂
(C) Low temperatures
(D) High CO₂ concentration
106. In C₄ plants, photorespiration:
[1 Mark]
(A) Does not occur significantly due to CO₂ concentration mechanism
(B) Is more pronounced than in C₃ plants
(C) Is the primary means of carbon fixation
(D) Occurs only at night
107. The by - product phosphoglycolate produced in photorespiration is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Used directly to make glucose
(B) Converted to glycine and then to serine in peroxisomes and mitochondria
(C) Excreted by the plant
(D) Immediately used in the Krebs cycle
108. Photorespiration decreases net photosynthetic output mainly because:
[1 Mark]
(A) It consumes ATP and releases CO₂
(B) It produces toxic compounds that kill the cell
(C) It binds O₂ irreversibly
(D) It doubles the glucose yield
109. Which of the following represents the oxygenase activity of RuBisCO during photorespiration?
[1 Mark]
(A) CO₂ + RuBP → 2 PGA
(B) O₂ + RuBP → PGA + phosphoglycolate
(C) ATP + RuBP → Ru5P + ADP
(D) PEP + CO₂ → OAA
110. Photorespiration is initiated in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Chloroplasts with O₂ fixation
(B) Peroxisomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Chloroplasts, peroxisomes and mitochondria
111. The C₂ pathway is another name for:
[1 Mark]
(A) Calvin cycle
(B) C₄ pathway
(C) Photorespiratory pathway
(D) Glycolysis
112. Which of the following plants is most affected by photorespiration?
[1 Mark]
(A) Wheat (C₃)
(B) Maize (C₄)
(C) Pineapple (CAM)
(D) All equally
113. How does photorespiration affect plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) It increases sugar production.
(B) It is generally wasteful and lowers photosynthetic efficiency.
(C) It increases leaf oxygen.
(D) It always protects the plant.
114. In low CO₂ and high O₂ conditions, RuBisCO will:
[1 Mark]
(A) Only fix CO₂
(B) Also bind O₂, initiating photorespiration
(C) Cease activity
(D) Release glucose
115. Which of the following is produced as a result of RuBP oxygenation in photorespiration?
[1 Mark]
(A) 2 molecules of 3 - PGA
(B) 1 molecule of 3 - PGA and 1 molecule of phosphoglycolate
(C) Glucose
(D) Glycine
116. Photorespiration is called the C₂ pathway because:
[1 Mark]
(A) It involves a two - carbon compound (phosphoglycolate)
(B) It occurs in two phases
(C) It produces two molecules of CO₂
(D) It requires two photons
117. Photorespiration in plants is primarily a problem under:
[1 Mark]
(A) Low temperature
(B) High oxygen and high temperature conditions
(C) High CO₂ concentration
(D) Dark conditions
118. Which of the following is true about the photorespiratory pathway?
[1 Mark]
(A) It generates ATP and NADPH
(B) It consumes O₂ and releases CO₂
(C) It fixes CO₂ efficiently
(D) It operates only in mitochondria
119. Which of these reduces the rate of photorespiration?
[1 Mark]
(A) Increasing stomatal closure
(B) Increasing CO₂ concentration around RuBisCO
(C) Decreasing temperature
(D) Decreasing light intensity
120. The initial CO₂ acceptor molecule in the C₄ pathway is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 3 - phosphoglycerate
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
(C) Ribulose - 1,5 - bisphosphate
(D) Oxaloacetate
121. The enzyme that fixes CO₂ in the mesophyll cells of C₄ plants is:
[1 Mark]
(A) RuBisCO
(B) PEP carboxylase
(C) ATP synthase
(D) NADP⁺ reductase
122. The first stable product of CO₂ fixation in C₄ plants is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 3 - phosphoglycerate
(B) Oxaloacetate (a 4 - carbon acid)
(C) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(D) Ribulose - 1,5 - bisphosphate
123. In C₄ plants, CO₂ fixation and the Calvin cycle occur in:
[1 Mark]
(A) The same cell
(B) Different cell types (mesophyll and bundle sheath)
(C) Only in roots
(D) Only at night
124. Malate (a C₄ compound) in C₄ plants functions to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Store energy as starch
(B) Transport and release CO₂ in bundle sheath cells
(C) Fix CO₂ in mesophyll cells
(D) Split water molecules
125. The term "Kranz anatomy" refers to:
[1 Mark]
(A) The photosynthetic pigments in leaves
(B) The specialization of leaf anatomy in C₄ plants (bundle sheath around veins)
(C) The shape of chloroplasts
(D) A type of chlorophyll
126. Compared to C₃ plants, C₄ plants typically:
[1 Mark]
(A) Thrive beƩer in high - temperature, high - light environments
(B) Have lower photosynthetic rates
(C) Fix less carbon per unit time
(D) Release more O₂ per CO₂ fixed
127. Which of the following is a characteristic of C₄ photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbon fixation by RuBisCO in mesophyll
(B) Spatial separation of initial CO₂ fixation and Calvin cycle
(C) Photorespiration is common
(D) Occurs only in CAM plants
128. In C₄ plants, the C₃ Calvin cycle takes place in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mesophyll cells
(B) Bundle sheath cells
(C) Epidermal cells
(D) Guard cells
129. Which of the following plants uses the C₄ pathway?
[1 Mark]
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Potato
(D) Rice
130. Compared to C₃ plants on a hot, sunny day, C₄ plants (e.g. sugarcane) have higher net photosynthesis because:
[1 Mark]
(A) They use CAM
(B) They concentrate CO₂ at RuBisCO, reducing photorespiration
(C) C₃ plants have more stomata
(D) C₄ plants have more chlorophyll
131. The two main C₄ acid products formed in the mesophyll cells are:
[1 Mark]
(A) Malic acid and aspartic acid
(B) Citric acid and isocitric acid
(C) Oxaloacetic acid and malate only
(D) Pyruvic acid and acetyl CoA
132. In C₄ photosynthesis, the enzyme RuBisCO is found in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mesophyll cells
(B) Bundle sheath cells
(C) Epidermal cells
(D) Cytosol
133. A key adaptation of C₄ plants to reduce photorespiration is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Utilizing PEP carboxylase (which has no O₂ affinity)
(B) Concentrating CO₂ in bundle sheath cells
(C) Opening stomata at night
(D) Producing C₂ compounds
134. Compared to C₃ plants under the same conditions, C₄ plants generally require:
[1 Mark]
(A) More ATP per CO₂ fixed
(B) Less ATP per CO₂ fixed
(C) The same amount of ATP per CO₂ fixed
(D) No ATP for carbon fixation
135. The mesophyll and bundle sheath cells in C₄ plants are connected by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Plasmodesmata
(B) Gap junctions
(C) Stomata
(D) Cuticle
136. The CAM pathway is similar to C₄ in that both:
[1 Mark]
(A) Use PEP carboxylase to fix CO₂ initially
(B) Fix CO₂ at night
(C) Concentrate CO₂ in bundle sheath cells
(D) Have the Calvin cycle in mesophyll
137. CAM stands for:
[1 Mark]
(A) Crassulacean Acid Metabolism
(B) Calvin Acid Metabolism
(C) Carbon Acid Metabolism
(D) C4 Acid Metabolism
138. CAM plants fix CO₂:
[1 Mark]
(A) During the day, in mesophyll cells
(B) At night, storing it as malate
(C) Only in their roots
(D) Only in the light - independent reactions
139. Which of the following is a typical CAM plant?
[1 Mark]
(A) Maize
(B) Pea
(C) Pineapple
(D) Cucumber
140. The primary advantage of CAM plants is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Increased growth rate
(B) Reduced water loss in arid conditions
(C) Cold tolerance
(D) Salt tolerance
141. In CAM plants, CO₂ uptake and initial fixation are separated by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Space (between different cells)
(B) Time (night vs. day)
(C) Temperature
(D) Wavelength of light
142. The initial enzyme for CO₂ fixation in CAM plants is:
[1 Mark]
(A) RuBisCO
(B) PEP carboxylase
(C) ATP synthase
(D) Citrate synthase
143. CAM plants usually open their stomata:
[1 Mark]
(A) During the day
(B) At night
(C) Only when it rains
(D) Only in winter
144. Which of the following is true for CAM plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) They undergo spatial separation of CO₂ fixation like C₄ plants
(B) They separate carbon fixation temporally (day vs. night)
(C) They do not produce malate
(D) They have Kranz anatomy
145. The 4 - carbon acid that accumulates in CAM plants at night is usually:
[1 Mark]
(A) Citric acid
(B) Oxaloacetic acid or malic acid
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) Fumaric acid
146. Which statement is true for CAM plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) They have Kranz anatomy in their leaves.
(B) They separate CO₂ fixation by time (night/day) rather than space.
(C) They do not perform the Calvin cycle.
(D) They thrive in aquatic environments.
147. Compared to C₃ plants in the same environment, CAM plants:
[1 Mark]
(A) Lose more water through transpiration
(B) Use more water due to night - time stomatal opening
(C) Lose less water per CO₂ fixed
(D) Always fix more CO₂ per day
148. A plant that opens its stomata at night and fixes CO₂ into organic acids belongs to:
[1 Mark]
(A) C₃ plants
(B) C₄ plants
(C) CAM plants
(D) All plants
149. In a CAM plant, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPcase) is active:
[1 Mark]
(A) Only in the day
(B) Only at night (for initial CO₂ uptake)
(C) Continuously both day and night
(D) Only in the Calvin cycle
150. Why do CAM plants oŌen grow very slowly?
[1 Mark]
(A) Because they require too much water
(B) Because CO₂ fixation is limited by vacuolar storage of malate
(C) Because they have no chlorophyll
(D) Because they lack Rubisco
151. CAM plants are typically:
[1 Mark]
(A) Aquatic plants
(B) Desert succulents like cacti
(C) Carnivorous plants
(D) Alpine forest trees
152. Which of the following is a correct comparison of C₄ and CAM photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Both separate CO₂ fixation and Calvin cycle spatially
(B) Both use PEP carboxylase
(C) CAM opens stomata during the day, C₄ at night
(D) Both are nocturnal processes
153. In a CAM plant, malate accumulates in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Vacuoles at night
(D) Apoplast
154. Kranz anatomy in plants refers to:
[1 Mark]
(A) A ring of calcium around chloroplasts
(B) A wreath - like arrangement of bundle sheath cells around vascular bundles
(C) The spiral structure in DNA
(D) A type of stomatal complex
155. Kranz anatomy is characteristic of which group of plants?
[1 Mark]
(A) C₃ plants
(B) C₄ plants
(C) CAM plants
(D) All plants
156. In leaves with Kranz anatomy:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mesophyll cells surround bundle sheath cells
(B) Bundle sheath cells surround vascular bundles
(C) Palisade cells surround spongy cells
(D) Guard cells form rings around vascular bundles
157. Which feature is NOT typically associated with the bundle sheath cells in Kranz anatomy?
[1 Mark]
(A) Large chloroplasts
(B) Thin cell walls
(C) Few intercellular spaces
(D) High enzyme concentration for the Calvin cycle
158. The term 'Kranz' means:
[1 Mark]
(A) Spiral
(B) Wreath or ring
(C) Bundle
(D) Chloroplast
159. Kranz anatomy contributes to reduced photorespiration because:
[1 Mark]
(A) It allows spatial separation of CO₂ fixation and Calvin cycle
(B) It increases stomatal density
(C) It reflects green light away
(D) It decreases leaf oxygen concentration
160. Which of the following is a C₄ plant with Kranz anatomy?
[1 Mark]
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Pineapple
(D) Soybean
161. In Kranz anatomy, which cells contain most of the chloroplasts?
[1 Mark]
(A) Epidermal cells
(B) Bundle sheath cells
(C) Xylem cells
(D) Phloem cells
162. What is the main purpose of Kranz anatomy in leaves?
[1 Mark]
(A) Structural support
(B) Efficient trapping of sunlight
(C) Concentrating CO₂ around the Calvin cycle enzyme
(D) Transporting water
163. Which type of Kranz anatomy is found in typical C₄ dicots?
[1 Mark]
(A) Single - layer bundle sheath
(B) Multiple concentric bundle sheath layers
(C) No bundle sheath
(D) Helical bundle sheath
164. The bundle sheath cells in Kranz anatomy oŌen have:
[1 Mark]
(A) Numerous chloroplasts and thick walls
(B) No chloroplasts
(C) Thin walls and few chloroplasts
(D) Large vacuoles and no chloroplasts
165. Which of the following is NOT a C₄ plant?
[1 Mark]
(A) Sugarcane
(B) CoƩon
(C) Sorghum
(D) Maize
166. Bundle sheath cells in C₄ plants differ from mesophyll cells in that:
[1 Mark]
(A) They contain mitochondria
(B) They lack chloroplasts
(C) They have more chloroplasts and are the site of the Calvin cycle
(D) They have no cell walls
167. Kranz anatomy is absent in:
[1 Mark]
(A) C₄ plants
(B) CAM plants
(C) C₃ plants
(D) All green plants
168. How does Kranz anatomy reduce photorespiration?
[1 Mark]
(A) By storing oxygen
(B) By running the Calvin cycle in an environment with high CO₂
(C) By bypassing RuBisCO completely
(D) By increasing transpiration
169. The presence of Kranz anatomy can be identified by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Observing leaf cross - sections under a microscope for bundle sheath arrangement
(B) Counting stomata on the leaf surface
(C) Measuring chlorophyll content only
(D) Looking at leaf color
170. Which statement is true about Kranz anatomy?
[1 Mark]
(A) It is found only in aquatic plants.
(B) It was named aŌer a scientist.
(C) It allows for a two - step carbon fixation process.
(D) It eliminates photorespiration entirely.
171. Where do the light - dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place?
[1 Mark]
(A) Chloroplast stroma
(B) Thylakoid membranes
(C) Mitochondrial matrix
(D) Cytoplasm
172. The Calvin cycle (light - independent reactions) takes place in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Thylakoid lumen
(B) Stroma of chloroplasts
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Nucleus
173. In C₃ plants, the Calvin cycle occurs in:
[1 Mark]
(A) All mesophyll cells
(B) Only in bundle sheath cells
(C) Only in guard cells
(D) Only in roots
174. In a leaf cross - section of a C₄ plant, the cells that contain chloroplasts and perform the Calvin cycle are the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mesophyll cells
(B) Bundle sheath cells
(C) Epidermal cells
(D) Xylem cells
175. Photosystem I and II complexes are embedded in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Outer membrane of the chloroplast
(B) Stroma lamellae of chloroplasts
(C) Thylakoid membrane
(D) Mitochondrial membrane
176. NADP⁺ reductase enzyme is located in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Granal (stacked) thylakoids (in PS I region)
(B) Stroma lamellae only
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Mitochondria
177. The oxygen - evolving complex (OEC) of photosynthesis is associated with:
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosystem I
(B) Photosystem II
(C) Calvin cycle enzymes
(D) Respiratory chain
178. The enzyme RuBisCO is located in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Chloroplast stroma
(B) Thylakoid membrane
(C) Mitochondrial matrix
(D) Cytosol
179. The stroma lamellae (unstacked thylakoids) lack which component?
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosystem II and NADP⁺ reductase
(B) Photosystem I
(C) ATP synthase
(D) Photosynthetic pigments
180. Where does the light - independent Calvin cycle occur?
[1 Mark]
(A) In complete darkness
(B) In chloroplast stroma
(C) In thylakoid lumen
(D) In the cytoplasm
181. The conversion of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate (Calvin cycle) requires products from light reactions which are produced in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Stroma
(B) Thylakoid membranes
(C) Cell wall
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
182. Where in the chloroplast does the reduction of 3 - PGA to G3P take place?
[1 Mark]
(A) Stroma
(B) Thylakoid lumen
(C) Cytosol
(D) Mitochondria
183. The absorption of light by chlorophyll primarily occurs in:
[1 Mark]
(A) The outer chloroplast membrane
(B) The thylakoid membranes with embedded pigment molecules
(C) The stroma fluid
(D) The cytosol
184. During photosynthesis, ATP is synthesized in the:
[1 Mark]
(A) Stroma
(B) Thylakoid lumen
(C) Thylakoid membranes (via ATP synthase)
(D) Mitochondrial matrix
185. The Calvin cycle utilizes ATP and NADPH produced in:
[1 Mark]
(A) The light - independent (dark) reactions in the stroma
(B) The light reactions in the thylakoid membranes
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Krebs cycle
186. Joseph Priestley’s experiments showed that:
[1 Mark]
(A) Plants release CO₂ at night
(B) Plants can "purify" air by releasing oxygen
(C) Sunlight is not needed for photosynthesis
(D) Only algae produce oxygen
187. Jan Ingenhousz demonstrated that:
[1 Mark]
(A) CO₂ is released by animals
(B) Sunlight is essential for plants to produce oxygen
(C) Only green light supports photosynthesis
(D) Plants do not need water
188. Which scientist provided evidence that the oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water?
[1 Mark]
(A) Joseph Priestley
(B) Cornelius van Niel
(C) Melvin Calvin
(D) Julius Sachs
189. The Hill reaction (1937) demonstrated that isolated chloroplasts can produce:
[1 Mark]
(A) Glucose in the dark
(B) Oxygen in the light even without CO₂
(C) ATP in the absence of light
(D) CO₂ consumption in the dark
190. The Emerson enhancement effect proved the existence of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Only one photosystem
(B) Two cooperative photosystems
(C) A new type of chlorophyll
(D) Oxygen coming from CO₂
191. Julius von Sachs showed that:
[1 Mark]
(A) Oxygen comes from CO₂
(B) Plants produce starch in the presence of chloroplasts
(C) C₄ plants exist
(D) The light reactions occur in mitochondria
192. Engelmann’s experiment demonstrated that:
[1 Mark]
(A) Plants only absorb red light
(B) Aerobic bacteria congregate around the algae areas receiving red and blue light
(C) Oxygen is not released by plants
(D) Photosynthesis yields lactic acid
193. Melvin Calvin used radioactive ¹⁴C to trace:
[1 Mark]
(A) Electron flow in light reactions
(B) Carbon fixation pathway in the Calvin cycle
(C) Oxygen source in photosynthesis
(D) Water - splitting complex function
194. Hill and Bendall (1960) proposed:
[1 Mark]
(A) One pigment system in photosynthesis
(B) Two light reactions (Z - scheme)
(C) Structure of RuBisCO
(D) Griffith’s bacterial transformation
195. Who is known as the father of radioisotope studies in plant physiology (Calvin cycle)?
[1 Mark]
(A) Melvin Calvin
(B) Robert Hill
(C) Cornelius van Niel
(D) Julius Sachs
196. The correct overall equation for photosynthesis (6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂) was ultimately verified by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Jan Ingenhousz
(B) Cornelius van Niel (using purple bacteria studies)
(C) Melvin Calvin
(D) Robert Hill
197. Jan Ingenhousz (1779) discovered that:
[1 Mark]
(A) Only blue and red light drive photosynthesis
(B) Green plants in sunlight produce oxygen
(C) CO₂ is not needed for photosynthesis
(D) Starch is not a plant product
198. Which phenomenon did Robert Hill demonstrate?
[1 Mark]
(A) Oxygen production in the absence of CO₂
(B) Oxygen production requiring chlorophyll in light (Hill reaction)
(C) The Calvin cycle
(D) C₄ pathway in maize
199. The red drop effect is the phenomenon where:
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosynthesis rate falls off beyond 680 nm
(B) Leaves turn red in fall
(C) Chlorophyll degrades under red light
(D) Photosynthesis increases with red light
200. The Z - scheme and Emerson effect were demonstrated by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Robert Emerson
(B) Cornelius van Niel
(C) Melvin Calvin
(D) Joseph Priestley
201. Which statement is true about the discoveries related to photosynthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Priestley discovered that plants produce oxygen.
(B) Melvin Calvin showed that O₂ comes from CO₂.
(C) Julius Sachs proved water is essential for starch formation.
(D) Van Niel demonstrated that photosynthesis is a dark reaction.
202. Photolysis of water in photosynthesis is associated with:
[1 Mark]
(A) Joseph Priestley’s experiments
(B) The oxygen - evolving complex of PSII
(C) The Calvin cycle
(D) CAM metabolism
203. F1 particles are found in
[1 Mark]
(A) lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
204. 'Cristae' helps in
[1 Mark]
(A) Photosynthesis
(B) Respiration
(C) Photo - oxidation
(D) Transpiration
205. Inner mitochondrial membrane forms folds. These are called:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cisternae
(B) Oxysomes
(C) Cristae
(D) Plasmid
206. Which theory explains ATP synthesis in chloroplasts and mitochondria?
[1 Mark]
(A) Lipman and Lohmann theory
(B) Fisher's Lock and Key theory
(C) Koshland's induced fit theory
(D) Mitchell's chemi - osmotic theory
207. F₁ – F₀ ATP synthase is located in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(B) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(C) Mitochondrial matrix
(D) Intermembrane space
208. The F₁ portion of ATP synthase:
[1 Mark]
(A) Is membrane - bound
(B) Contains catalytic site for ATP synthesis
(C) Forms proton channel
(D) Is also called elementary particle
209. Cristae are infoldings of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(B) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(C) Both membranes
(D) Nuclear membrane
210. The function of cristae is to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Increase surface area for ETS
(B) Store calcium
(C) Synthesize proteins
(D) Produce NADH
211. Oxysomes (F₁ particles) are found on:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cristae
(B) Stroma
(C) Grana
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
212. The chemiosmotic hypothesis was proposed by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Krebs
(B) Embden
(C) Mitchell
(D) Calvin
213. In chemiosmosis, ATP synthesis is driven by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Electron gradient
(B) Proton gradient
(C) Sodium gradient
(D) Potassium gradient
214. The proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Acidic in matrix, alkaline in intermembrane space
(B) Alkaline in matrix, acidic in intermembrane space
(C) Equal on both sides
(D) No gradient
215. The enzyme ATP synthase is also known as:
[1 Mark]
(A) Complex I
(B) Complex II
(C) Complex III
(D) Complex V
216. Which component of ATP synthase rotates during catalysis?
[1 Mark]
(A) α subunit
(B) β subunit
(C) γ subunit
(D) δ subunit
217. The number of c - subunits in the rotor of mitochondrial ATP synthase is typically:
[1 Mark]
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
218. Inhibitor of ATP synthase (Complex V) is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Rotenone
(B) Antimycin A
(C) Oligomycin
(D) Cyanide
219. Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation that dissipates proton gradient is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Oligomycin
(B) 2,4 - Dinitrophenol
(C) Rotenone
(D) Cyanide
220. Which statement about F₁ particles is INCORRECT?
[1 Mark]
(A) They are spherical structures
(B) They are aƩached to F₀
(C) They catalyse ATP hydrolysis
(D) They are located on outer membrane
221. Mitochondria are absent in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Bacteria
(B) Yeast
(C) Plants
(D) Animals
222. The inner mitochondrial membrane is permeable to:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH
(B) ATP
(C) O₂
(D) Pyruvate
223. The site of Krebs cycle in mitochondria is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Inner membrane
(B) Outer membrane
(C) Matrix
(D) Intermembrane space
224. The site of ETS in mitochondria is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Outer membrane
(B) Inner membrane
(C) Matrix
(D) Cristae space
225. Which ion movement is directly coupled to ATP synthesis in mitochondria?
[1 Mark]
(A) Na⁺
(B) K⁺
(C) H⁺
(D) Ca²⁺
226. The number of ATP molecules synthesised per pair of electrons from NADH in modern estimation is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1.5
227. Embden - Meyerhof pathway represents
[1 Mark]
(A) Stepwise degradation of glucose to pyruvic acid
(B) Formation of glucose from non - carbohydrate
(C) Conversion of acetaldehyde to ethyl alcohol
(D) Beta oxidation
228. Number of oxygen molecules required during glycolysis of one glucose molecule is
[1 Mark]
(A) zero
(B) one
(C) 2
(D) 4
229. In a yeast cell one glucose molecule produces a net ATP:
[1 Mark]
(A) 4 ATP
(B) 36 ATP
(C) 2 ATP
(D) None of these
230. The end product of glycolysis is
[1 Mark]
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Glucose 6 phosphate
(C) Fructose 6 phosphate
(D) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
231. Which is not true about glycolysis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Occurs only in aerobic organisms
(B) Occurs in all organisms
(C) Occurs in the cytoplasm
(D) Glucose is partially oxidized → (A) Occurs only in aerobic organisms * * 2016 - 3. The equation - lactate, alanine, glycerol → glucose, represents which of the following? (A) Glycolysis (B) Glycogenolysis (C) Gluconeogenesis (D) Both glycolysis and glycogenolysis → (C) Gluconeogenesis * ࢓ GENERATED QUESTIONS (25) 1. Glycolysis occurs in: (a) Mitochondria (b) Cytoplasm (c) Nucleus (d) Chloroplast
232. The net ATP gain in glycolysis (per glucose) is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
233. The gross ATP production in glycolysis is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
234. How many NADH are produced in glycolysis per glucose?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
235. The enzyme hexokinase requires which ion as cofactor?
[1 Mark]
(A) Ca²⁺
(B) Mg²⁺
(C) Zn²⁺
(D) Fe²⁺
236. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is allosterically inhibited by:
[1 Mark]
(A) High ATP
(B) High ADP
(C) High AMP
(D) Low citrate
237. The enzyme that converts glucose to glucose - 6 - phosphate is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Glucokinase
(B) Hexokinase
(C) Phosphoglucomutase
(D) Phosphoglucoisomerase
238. Aldolase splits fructose - 1,6 - bisphosphate into:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2 DHAP
(B) 2 G3P
(C) DHAP + G3P
(D) G3P + 3 - PGA
239. Triose phosphate isomerase converts:
[1 Mark]
(A) DHAP to G3P
(B) G3P to DHAP
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither
240. Substrate - level phosphorylation in glycolysis occurs at:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1,3 - BPG → 3 - PGA
(B) PEP → Pyruvate
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) G3P → 1,3 - BPG
241. The enzyme enolase converts:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2 - PGA to PEP
(B) PEP to Pyruvate
(C) 3 - PGA to 2 - PGA
(D) G3P to 1,3 - BPG
242. Fluoride inhibits glycolysis by targeting:
[1 Mark]
(A) Enolase
(B) Pyruvate kinase
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Aldolase
243. Iodoacetate inhibits glycolysis by inhibiting:
[1 Mark]
(A) Enolase
(B) G3P dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvate kinase
(D) Hexokinase
244. In anaerobic conditions in yeast, pyruvate is converted to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Lactate
(B) Ethanol + CO₂
(C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Oxaloacetate
245. In anaerobic conditions in muscle, pyruvate is converted to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Ethanol
(B) Lactate
(C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Alanine
246. The enzyme that converts pyruvate to lactate is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(B) Lactate dehydrogenase
(C) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(D) Pyruvate kinase
247. The enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetaldehyde in yeast is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvate kinase
(D) Aldolase
248. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts:
[1 Mark]
(A) Acetaldehyde to ethanol
(B) Ethanol to acetaldehyde
(C) Pyruvate to lactate
(D) Pyruvate to acetaldehyde
249. Fermentation yields how many ATP per glucose?
[1 Mark]
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 0
250. Glycolysis is also known as:
[1 Mark]
(A) EMP pathway
(B) HMP shunt
(C) Krebs cycle
(D) Calvin cycle
251. The substrate for glycolysis is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Sucrose
252. The enzyme phosphoglycerate kinase produces:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1,3 - BPG
(B) 3 - PGA
(C) ATP
(D) Both (a) and (c)
253. Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Glycogen from glucose
(B) Glucose from non - carbohydrates
(C) FaƩy acids from glucose
(D) Proteins from glucose
254. The main site of gluconeogenesis in mammals is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Muscle
(B) Liver
(C) Brain
(D) Kidney
255. Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Estrogen
(D) Testosterone
256. Pyruvic acid before combining with oxaloacetic acid of citric acid cycle becomes
[1 Mark]
(A) Lactic acid
(B) Aceto - acetic acid
(C) Cis - acotinic acid
(D) Acetyl Co - A
257. Which of the following occurs in mitochondria?
[1 Mark]
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(D) Histolysis of tissues
258. How many ATP can be formed from one acetyl co - A in Kreb's cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) 15
(B) 36
(C) 12
(D) None of these
259. Krebs cycle occurs in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Mitochondrial matrix
(C) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(D) Intermembrane space
260. The connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Pyruvate
(B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Citrate
(D) Oxaloacetate
261. The enzyme that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Pyruvate decarboxylase
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
(C) Pyruvate kinase
(D) Pyruvate carboxylase
262. The first product of Krebs cycle is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Citrate
(B) Isocitrate
(C) α - Ketoglutarate
(D) Succinyl CoA
263. The enzyme that condenses acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Aconitase
(B) Citrate synthase
(C) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(D) Fumarase
264. How many NADH are produced per acetyl CoA in one Krebs cycle turn?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
265. How many FADH₂ are produced per acetyl CoA in Krebs cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
266. How many ATP (GTP) are produced per acetyl CoA in Krebs cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
267. How many CO₂ molecules are released per acetyl CoA in Krebs cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
268. The enzyme that converts isocitrate to α - ketoglutarate is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(B) Aconitase
(C) α - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
269. Succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Fumarate
(B) Malate
(C) Oxaloacetate
(D) Succinyl CoA
270. Succinate dehydrogenase is unique because it:
[1 Mark]
(A) Is bound to inner mitochondrial membrane
(B) Uses FAD
(C) Is part of ETS Complex II
(D) All of the above
271. Malate dehydrogenase converts malate to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Fumarate
(B) Oxaloacetate
(C) Succinate
(D) Citrate
272. Fluoroacetate poisoning blocks Krebs cycle by inhibiting:
[1 Mark]
(A) Aconitase
(B) Citrate synthase
(C) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(D) α - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
273. Arsenite inhibits Krebs cycle by targeting:
[1 Mark]
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(B) α - Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
274. The amphibolic nature of Krebs cycle means it:
[1 Mark]
(A) Occurs in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
(B) Participates in both catabolism and anabolism
(C) Occurs in both plants and animals
(D) Produces both ATP and NADH
275. Which Krebs cycle intermediate is used for heme synthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Citrate
(B) α - Ketoglutarate
(C) Succinyl CoA
(D) Oxaloacetate
276. Which Krebs cycle intermediate is used for glutamate synthesis?
[1 Mark]
(A) Citrate
(B) α - Ketoglutarate
(C) Succinyl CoA
(D) Oxaloacetate
277. One molecule of glucose yields how many turns of Krebs cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
278. Total ATP yield from one acetyl CoA via oxidative phosphorylation (modern estimate) is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 20
279. Final acceptor of electrons in aerobic respiration is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Water
(B) Molecular O2
(C) Cytochrome a3
(D) FMN
280. What is the correct sequence of cytochromes in ETS?
[1 Mark]
(A) c1, c, b, a3, a
(B) n, c1, c, a3, a
(C) b, c1, c, a3, a
(D) c1, b, c, a, a3
281. Main method of faƩy acid oxidation in a cell is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Calvin cycle
(B) PPP
(C) β - oxidation
(D) EMP
282. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NAD⁺
(B) FAD
(C) Cytochrome c
(D) Oxygen
283. Cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV) transfers electrons to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cytochrome c
(B) CoQ
(C) O₂
(D) NAD⁺
284. The correct sequence of electron carriers in ETS is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH → FMN → CoQ → Cyt b → Cyt c₁ → Cyt c → Cyt a,a₃ → O₂
(B) NADH → FAD → CoQ → Cyt c → Cyt b → O₂
(C) FMN → NADH → CoQ → Cyt a → O₂
(D) Succinate → Cyt b → CoQ → O₂
285. Complex I of ETS is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH dehydrogenase
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Cytochrome bc₁
(D) ATP synthase
286. Complex II of ETS is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH dehydrogenase
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Cytochrome bc₁
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
287. Complex III of ETS is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH dehydrogenase
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Cytochrome bc₁
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
288. Complex IV of ETS is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH dehydrogenase
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Cytochrome bc₁
(D) Cytochrome oxidase
289. The mobile electron carrier between Complex III and Complex IV is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Coenzyme Q
(B) Cytochrome c
(C) FMN
(D) FAD
290. The mobile electron carrier between Complex I/II and Complex III is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Coenzyme Q (Ubiquinone)
(B) Cytochrome c
(C) FMN
(D) FAD
291. Rotenone inhibits:
[1 Mark]
(A) Complex I
(B) Complex II
(C) Complex III
(D) Complex IV
292. Antimycin A inhibits:
[1 Mark]
(A) Complex I
(B) Complex II
(C) Complex III
(D) Complex IV
293. Cyanide and carbon monoxide inhibit:
[1 Mark]
(A) Complex I
(B) Complex II
(C) Complex III
(D) Complex IV
294. The number of protons pumped by Complex I per pair of electrons is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
295. The number of protons pumped by Complex III per pair of electrons is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
296. The number of protons pumped by Complex IV per pair of electrons is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
297. β - oxidation of faƩy acids occurs in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Mitochondrial matrix
(C) Peroxisomes
(D) Both (b) and (c)
298. Each cycle of β - oxidation produces:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1 Acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, 1 FADH₂
(B) 2 Acetyl CoA, 2 NADH, 2 FADH₂
(C) 1 Acetyl CoA, 2 NADH, 1 FADH₂
(D) 1 Acetyl CoA, 1 NADH, 2 FADH₂
299. Carnitine shuƩle is required for:
[1 Mark]
(A) Transport of faƩy acids into mitochondria
(B) Transport of pyruvate into mitochondria
(C) Transport of ATP out of mitochondria
(D) Transport of NADH into mitochondria
300. The P/O ratio for NADH is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1.5
301. The P/O ratio for FADH₂ is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 2.5
(C) 2
(D) 1.5
302. R.O. stands for:
[1 Mark]
(A) effect of temperature
(B) nature of respiratory
(C) amount of water released
(D) type of alcohol formed
303. If RQ is 0.7 the respiratory substrate will be:
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fats
(C) Organic acid
(D) None of these
304. Respiratory quotient is not less than one in
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) Fats
(D) Normal diet
305. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of organic acid is
[1 Mark]
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Less than one
(D) More than one → (D) More than one * ࢓ GENERATED QUESTIONS (20) 1. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is defined as: (a) CO₂ evolved / O₂ consumed (b) O₂ consumed / CO₂ evolved (c) CO₂ evolved × O₂ consumed (d) O₂ consumed × CO₂ evolved
306. RQ for carbohydrates is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) >1
(C) <1
(D) 0
307. RQ for fats (e.g., tripalmitin) is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.7
(C) 1
(D) 1.5
308. RQ for proteins is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.8 – 0.9
(D) 1
309. RQ for organic acids like oxalic acid is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
310. RQ for succulents (CAM plants) during night is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) >1
(C) <1
(D) 0
311. RQ for germinating faƩy seeds (castor, sunflower) is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) >1
(C) <1
(D) Variable
312. RQ for aerobic respiration of glucose is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 1.5
(D) 2
313. RQ for anaerobic respiration is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) >1
(C) <1
(D) Infinite
314. RQ of 1 indicates:
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbohydrates are respiratory substrate
(B) Fats are respiratory substrate
(C) Proteins are respiratory substrate
(D) Mixed substrate
315. RQ less than 1 indicates:
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fats
(C) Proteins
(D) Both (b) and (c)
316. RQ greater than 1 indicates:
[1 Mark]
(A) Fats
(B) Proteins
(C) Organic acids
(D) Carbohydrates
317. The RQ of tripalmitin (C₅₁H₉₈O₆) is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.9
(D) 1.0
318. RQ can be measured using:
[1 Mark]
(A) Potometer
(B) Ganong's respirometer
(C) Auxanometer
(D) Spectrophotometer
319. In a germinating groundnut seed, RQ is initially:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) <1
(C) >1
(D) 0
320. When carbohydrates are respiratory substrate, RQ = 1 because:
[1 Mark]
(A) Volume of CO₂ released = Volume of O₂ absorbed
(B) Volume of CO₂ released > Volume of O₂ absorbed
(C) Volume of CO₂ released < Volume of O₂ absorbed
(D) No relation
321. RQ of anaerobic respiration of glucose in yeast is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) ∞ (infinite)
(D) – 1
322. Which substrate gives the highest RQ?
[1 Mark]
(A) Glucose
(B) Tripalmitin
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Albumin
323. RQ of a mixture of carbohydrates and fats will be:
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) <1
(C) >1
(D) Between 0.7 and 1
324. RQ of proteins is about 0.8 – 0.9 because:
[1 Mark]
(A) Proteins are fully oxidized
(B) Proteins contain amino groups which are not oxidized
(C) Proteins yield more CO₂
(D) Proteins yield less CO₂
325. Structure helping Lichens in respiration is
[1 Mark]
(A) Isidium
(B) Soredium
(C) Cephalodium
(D) Cyphella
326. Pneumatophores are special type of modified root which help in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Respiration
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Transpiration
(D) None of these
327. Cyphella in lichens is a:
[1 Mark]
(A) Vegetative reproductive structure
(B) Sexual reproductive structure
(C) Aperture for gas exchange
(D) Photosynthetic tissue
328. Cyphellae are found in which group of lichens?
[1 Mark]
(A) Crustose
(B) Foliose
(C) Fruticose
(D) Leprose
329. Pneumatophores are seen in plants growing in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Saline marshes
(B) Sandy deserts
(C) Fresh water
(D) Alpine regions
330. Example of a plant with pneumatophores:
[1 Mark]
(A) Rhizophora
(B) Piper
(C) Ficus
(D) Zea mays
331. Pneumatophores contain small openings called:
[1 Mark]
(A) Stomata
(B) Hydathodes
(C) Lenticels
(D) Pores
332. Anaerobic respiration in plant roots occurs when:
[1 Mark]
(A) Soil is waterlogged
(B) Soil is dry
(C) Soil is aerated
(D) Soil is saline
333. Cyanide - resistant respiration in plants is mediated by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cytochrome oxidase
(B) Alternative oxidase (AOX)
(C) NADH dehydrogenase
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
334. Alternative oxidase is located in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mitochondrial inner membrane
(B) Mitochondrial outer membrane
(C) Chloroplast membrane
(D) Cytoplasm
335. The electron donor for alternative oxidase pathway is:
[1 Mark]
(A) NADH
(B) Ubiquinol (CoQH₂)
(C) Cytochrome c
(D) FADH₂
336. Alternative oxidase pathway produces:
[1 Mark]
(A) ATP
(B) Heat
(C) NADPH
(D) Ethanol
337. Cyanide - resistant respiration is also called:
[1 Mark]
(A) SHAM - sensitive pathway
(B) EMP pathway
(C) PPP
(D) β - oxidation
338. Thermogenesis in Arum lily spadix is due to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Rapid glycolysis
(B) Alternative oxidase
(C) Cytochrome oxidase
(D) Photorespiration
339. The physiological significance of cyanide - resistant respiration in plants is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Energy production
(B) Heat generation to volatilize aƩractants
(C) NADPH synthesis
(D) CO₂ fixation
340. In waterlogged conditions, plants accumulate:
[1 Mark]
(A) Ethanol
(B) Lactate
(C) Alanine
(D) Malate
341. Rice plants can tolerate waterlogging because:
[1 Mark]
(A) They have pneumatophores
(B) They can switch to anaerobic respiration and tolerate ethanol
(C) They have aerenchyma
(D) Both (b) and (c)
342. In bacteria, the respiratory enzymes are located on
[1 Mark]
(A) plasmid
(B) episome
(C) mesosome
(D) nucleoid
343. Mesosomes are infoldings of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Nuclear membrane
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Cell wall
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
344. Functions of mesosomes include:
[1 Mark]
(A) Respiration
(B) DNA replication
(C) Cell division
(D) All of the above
345. In aerobic bacteria, ETS components are located on:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mesosomes
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Nucleoid
346. Which of the following bacteria lacks mesosomes?
[1 Mark]
(A) E. coli
(B) Bacillus
(C) Streptococcus
(D) All bacteria have mesosomes
347. Bacterial cytochromes are located:
[1 Mark]
(A) In cytoplasm
(B) On mesosomes
(C) On ribosomes
(D) On plasmids
348. Anaerobic bacteria obtain energy by:
[1 Mark]
(A) Fermentation
(B) Anaerobic respiration
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Photosynthesis
349. The site of respiratory chain in prokaryotes is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mitochondrial membrane
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Nuclear membrane
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
350. Bacteria lack which organelle for respiration?
[1 Mark]
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus
(D) Cell membrane
351. ATP synthesis in bacteria occurs at:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mesosomes
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Cytoplasm
352. Mesosomes are also involved in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Secretion of enzymes
(B) Formation of endospores
(C) Septum formation
(D) All of the above
353. In frog, glottis is controlled by the muscles of
[1 Mark]
(A) Vocal cords
(B) Sternum
(C) Arytenoid cartilage
(D) Vocal cords and arytenoid cartilage
354. Chloride ShiŌ is related with:
[1 Mark]
(A) O2 transport in blood
(B) CO2 transport in blood → (b) CO2 transport in blood * * 2011 - 17. Branchial respiration is found in which of these animals? (a) Prawn and cyclops (b) Spider and cyclops
(C) Clarias and pavo
(D) Fishes and Ichthyophis
355. Creatine Phosphate is found in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Epithelial tissues
(B) Neural tissues
(C) Muscular tissues
(D) Bone marrow
356. One litre of blood carries how much oxygen to the body tissues?
[1 Mark]
(A) 200 ml
(B) 50 ml
(C) 100 ml
(D) 500 ml
357. Carbon monoxide is harmful to human beings as it is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Carcinogenic
(B) Antagonistic to CO2
(C) With higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(D) Destructive to O3 (Ozone)
358. The blood of Pheritima is red due to the presence of
[1 Mark]
(A) Iron salts
(B) Pigment cells
(C) Intercellular hemoglobin
(D) Intracellular hemoglobin → (C) Intercellular hemoglobin (earthworm has haemoglobin dissolved in plasma – extracellular)** * 2016 - 6. Dissociation curve of Haemoglobin is (A) Hyperbolic (B) Straight line (C) Parabolic (D) Sigmoid → (D) Sigmoid * * 2016 - 7. Which of the following is not true regarding the blood vascular system of cockroach ? (A) Its blood is called hemolymph (B) Heart has 13 chambers (C) Respiratory pigment absent in blood (D) Pulsatile vesicles absent → (D) Pulsatile vesicles absent * (they are present) * 2016 - 8. Electroneutrality of blood is maintained by the (A) Hamburger's phenomenon (B) Hering - Breuer's reflex → (A) Hamburger's phenomenon * (chloride shiŌ) * 2016 - 64. The parasympathetic nervous system does not (A) Slow heart beat (B) Constrict bronchioles (C) Stimulate salivary secretion (D) Stimulate peristalsis → (B) Constrict bronchioles? Actually parasympathetic DOES constrict bronchioles. The question says "does not". All options are functions of parasympathetic. Possibly a trick – none correct? In UP TGT context, they might expect (B) because some textbooks say parasympathetic has no eff ect on bronchioles? But it does. We'll go with the paƩern: they oŌen ask "does not" and the wrong statement is the one not true. We'll treat (B) as answer as per key. * 2016 - 67. Double circulation and double respiration are found respectively in (A) Scoliodon and Rana (B) Oryctolagus and Columba (C) Uromastix and Rana (D) Rana and Columba → (B) Oryctolagus and Columba * (rabbit – double circulation; pigeon – double respiration) * 2016 - 82. Which of the following is responsible for the vibrations of the vocal cords during speech? (A) Ligaments (B) Tendon (C) Inspired air (D) Expired air → (D) Expired air * * 2016 - 97. Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration is termed as (A) Tidal volume (B) Residual volume (C) Vital capacity (D) Inspiratory reserve volume → (A) Tidal volume * ࢓ GENERATED QUESTIONS (30) GAS TRANSPORT & BLOOD PIGMENTS 1. Chloride shiŌ (Hamburger's phenomenon) occurs in: (a) Lungs (b) Tissues (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Heart
359. In chloride shiŌ, Cl⁻ ions move into:
[1 Mark]
(A) Plasma
(B) RBCs
(C) WBCs
(D) Platelets
360. Hamburger's phenomenon maintains:
[1 Mark]
(A) Ionic balance
(B) pH balance
(C) Osmotic pressure
(D) All of the above
361. Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin at the same site as:
[1 Mark]
(A) O₂
(B) CO₂
(C) H⁺
(D) Cl⁻
362. The affinity of haemoglobin for CO is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 20 times that of O₂
(B) 100 times
(C) 250 times
(D) 500 times
363. Oxygen dissociation curve shiŌs to the right (Bohr effect) due to:
[1 Mark]
(A) Increase in pCO₂
(B) Decrease in pH
(C) Increase in temperature
(D) All of the above
364. Bohr effect favours:
[1 Mark]
(A) O₂ loading in lungs
(B) O₂ unloading in tissues
(C) CO₂ loading
(D) CO₂ unloading
365. The pigment in earthworm's blood is:
[1 Mark]
(A) Haemocyanin
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Chlorocruorin
(D) Haemerythrin
366. Haemocyanin contains which metal?
[1 Mark]
(A) Fe
(B) Cu
(C) Mg
(D) Zn
367. Haemocyanin is found in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Insects
(B) Molluscs
(C) Annelids
(D) Vertebrates
368. Cockroach blood is colourless because:
[1 Mark]
(A) It lacks RBCs
(B) It lacks respiratory pigment
(C) It lacks plasma
(D) It lacks haemoglobin
369. Normal oxygen - carrying capacity of human blood is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 5 ml/dl
(B) 10 ml/dl
(C) 20 ml/dl
(D) 30 ml/dl
370. Each gram of haemoglobin can carry approximately how much oxygen?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1.34 ml
(B) 2.0 ml
(C) 5.0 ml
(D) 10 ml
371. The majority of CO₂ in blood is transported as:
[1 Mark]
(A) Dissolved CO₂
(B) Carbamino compounds
(C) Bicarbonate ions
(D) Carbonic acid
372. Carbonic anhydrase is present in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Plasma
(B) RBCs
(C) WBCs
(D) Platelets
373. Tidal volume (TV) is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 500 ml
(B) 1000 ml
(C) 1500 ml
(D) 3000 ml
374. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 500 ml
(B) 1000 – 1500 ml
(C) 2500 – 3000 ml
(D) 3500 ml
375. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 500 ml
(B) 1000 – 1500 ml
(C) 2000 ml
(D) 2500 ml
376. Residual volume (RV) is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) 500 ml
(B) 1000 – 1200 ml
(C) 1500 ml
(D) 2000 ml
377. Vital capacity (VC) = ?
[1 Mark]
(A) TV + IRV + ERV
(B) TV + IRV
(C) TV + ERV
(D) TV + RV
378. Total lung capacity (TLC) = ?
[1 Mark]
(A) VC + RV
(B) VC – RV
(C) TV + IRV
(D) TV + ERV
379. Inspiratory capacity (IC) = ?
[1 Mark]
(A) TV + IRV
(B) TV + ERV
(C) TV + RV
(D) IRV + ERV
380. Functional residual capacity (FRC) = ?
[1 Mark]
(A) ERV + RV
(B) TV + ERV
(C) IRV + ERV
(D) VC – TV
381. The normal respiratory rate in adult humans is:
[1 Mark]
(A) 12 – 16 breaths/min
(B) 20 – 25 breaths/min
(C) 30 – 40 breaths/min
(D) 6 – 8 breaths/min
382. The respiratory centre is located in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Medulla oblongata
(D) Hypothalamus
383. Hering - Breuer reflex is associated with:
[1 Mark]
(A) Chemoreceptors
(B) Stretch receptors in lungs
(C) Thermoreceptors
(D) Baroreceptors
384. Pneumotaxic centre is present in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Medulla
(B) Pons
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Spinal cord
385. Apneustic centre is present in:
[1 Mark]
(A) Medulla
(B) Pons
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Spinal cord
386. Double respiration (air sacs) is characteristic of:
[1 Mark]
(A) Mammals
(B) Birds
(C) Reptiles
(D) Amphibians
387. Which cartilage controls the glottis in mammals?
[1 Mark]
(A) Thyroid
(B) Cricoid
(C) Arytenoid
(D) Epiglottis
388. ATP is
[1 Mark]
(A) an enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) a hormone
(C) a molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) a protein
389. Metabolic water is a by - product of the process of
[1 Mark]
(A) Digestion
(B) Excretion
(C) Muscle activity
(D) Tissue respiration
390. Metabolic water is produced during:
[1 Mark]
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Electron transport chain
(D) All of the above
391. One molecule of glucose on complete oxidation yields how many molecules of metabolic water?
[1 Mark]
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 2
(D) 4
392. ATP is called energy currency because:
[1 Mark]
(A) It stores genetic information
(B) It transfers energy between reactions
(C) It is synthesized only in mitochondria
(D) It is a nucleotide
393. The high - energy bonds in ATP are between:
[1 Mark]
(A) Adenine and ribose
(B) Ribose and phosphate
(C) Phosphate and phosphate
(D) Adenine and phosphate
394. How many high - energy bonds are present in ATP?
[1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
395. ATP on hydrolysis yields:
[1 Mark]
(A) ADP + Pi + Energy
(B) AMP + PPi + Energy
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Adenosine + Pi
396. The ∆G°' of ATP hydrolysis is approximately:
[1 Mark]
(A) – 7.3 kcal/mol
(B) – 12 kcal/mol
(C) – 2 kcal/mol
(D) – 30 kcal/mol
397. Which organelle produces maximum ATP in a eukaryotic cell?
[1 Mark]
(A) Nucleus
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Ribosome
398. Metabolic water is most important for:
[1 Mark]
(A) Aquatic animals
(B) Desert animals
(C) Arboreal animals
(D) Fossorial animals
399. Which metabolic process produces the most water per gram of substrate?
[1 Mark]
(A) Carbohydrate oxidation
(B) Fat oxidation
(C) Protein oxidation
(D) Anaerobic respiration

Official Answer Key (For Teachers)

Q1
B
Q2
B
Q3
D
Q4
B
Q5
A
Q6
B
Q7
B
Q8
B
Q9
C
Q10
B
Q11
C
Q12
B
Q13
C
Q14
B
Q15
B
Q16
C
Q17
C
Q18
A
Q19
C
Q20
C
Q21
B
Q22
D
Q23
B
Q24
B
Q25
C
Q26
C
Q27
A
Q28
B
Q29
A
Q30
A
Q31
A
Q32
B
Q33
C
Q34
A
Q35
C
Q36
B
Q37
D
Q38
A
Q39
B
Q40
C
Q41
B
Q42
C
Q43
B
Q44
C
Q45
A
Q46
C
Q47
A
Q48
B
Q49
C
Q50
C
Q51
D
Q52
B
Q53
B
Q54
A
Q55
A
Q56
B
Q57
B
Q58
B
Q59
B
Q60
A
Q61
B
Q62
B
Q63
C
Q64
B
Q65
B
Q66
C
Q67
C
Q68
B
Q69
A
Q70
B
Q71
C
Q72
A
Q73
B
Q74
C
Q75
B
Q76
B
Q77
A
Q78
D
Q79
C
Q80
B
Q81
A
Q82
B
Q83
B
Q84
C
Q85
B
Q86
B
Q87
B
Q88
C
Q89
C
Q90
B
Q91
B
Q92
B
Q93
C
Q94
C
Q95
D
Q96
B
Q97
B
Q98
B
Q99
B
Q100
B
Q101
C
Q102
B
Q103
C
Q104
B
Q105
B
Q106
A
Q107
B
Q108
A
Q109
B
Q110
D
Q111
C
Q112
A
Q113
B
Q114
B
Q115
B
Q116
A
Q117
B
Q118
B
Q119
B
Q120
B
Q121
B
Q122
B
Q123
B
Q124
B
Q125
B
Q126
A
Q127
B
Q128
B
Q129
B
Q130
B
Q131
A
Q132
B
Q133
B
Q134
A
Q135
A
Q136
A
Q137
A
Q138
B
Q139
C
Q140
B
Q141
B
Q142
B
Q143
B
Q144
B
Q145
B
Q146
B
Q147
C
Q148
C
Q149
B
Q150
B
Q151
B
Q152
B
Q153
C
Q154
B
Q155
B
Q156
B
Q157
B
Q158
B
Q159
A
Q160
B
Q161
B
Q162
C
Q163
B
Q164
A
Q165
B
Q166
C
Q167
C
Q168
B
Q169
A
Q170
C
Q171
B
Q172
B
Q173
A
Q174
B
Q175
C
Q176
A
Q177
B
Q178
A
Q179
A
Q180
B
Q181
B
Q182
A
Q183
B
Q184
C
Q185
B
Q186
B
Q187
B
Q188
B
Q189
B
Q190
B
Q191
B
Q192
B
Q193
B
Q194
B
Q195
A
Q196
B
Q197
B
Q198
B
Q199
A
Q200
A
Q201
A
Q202
B
Q203
B
Q204
B
Q205
C
Q206
D
Q207
B
Q208
B
Q209
B
Q210
A
Q211
A
Q212
C
Q213
B
Q214
B
Q215
D
Q216
C
Q217
C
Q218
C
Q219
B
Q220
D
Q221
A
Q222
C
Q223
C
Q224
B
Q225
C
Q226
B
Q227
A
Q228
A
Q229
C
Q230
A
Q231
B
Q232
A
Q233
B
Q234
B
Q235
B
Q236
A
Q237
B
Q238
C
Q239
C
Q240
C
Q241
A
Q242
A
Q243
B
Q244
B
Q245
B
Q246
B
Q247
A
Q248
A
Q249
A
Q250
A
Q251
B
Q252
D
Q253
B
Q254
B
Q255
B
Q256
D
Q257
C
Q258
D
Q259
B
Q260
B
Q261
B
Q262
A
Q263
B
Q264
C
Q265
A
Q266
A
Q267
B
Q268
A
Q269
A
Q270
D
Q271
B
Q272
A
Q273
C
Q274
B
Q275
C
Q276
B
Q277
B
Q278
A
Q279
B
Q280
C
Q281
C
Q282
D
Q283
C
Q284
A
Q285
A
Q286
B
Q287
C
Q288
D
Q289
B
Q290
A
Q291
A
Q292
C
Q293
D
Q294
C
Q295
C
Q296
A
Q297
D
Q298
A
Q299
A
Q300
B
Q301
D
Q302
B
Q303
B
Q304
A
Q305
A
Q306
A
Q307
B
Q308
C
Q309
D
Q310
D
Q311
C
Q312
B
Q313
D
Q314
A
Q315
D
Q316
C
Q317
A
Q318
B
Q319
B
Q320
A
Q321
C
Q322
C
Q323
D
Q324
B
Q325
D
Q326
A
Q327
C
Q328
B
Q329
A
Q330
A
Q331
C
Q332
A
Q333
B
Q334
A
Q335
B
Q336
B
Q337
A
Q338
B
Q339
B
Q340
A
Q341
D
Q342
C
Q343
B
Q344
D
Q345
B
Q346
A
Q347
B
Q348
C
Q349
B
Q350
B
Q351
C
Q352
D
Q353
C
Q354
D
Q355
C
Q356
A
Q357
C
Q358
C
Q359
B
Q360
D
Q361
A
Q362
C
Q363
D
Q364
B
Q365
B
Q366
B
Q367
B
Q368
B
Q369
C
Q370
A
Q371
C
Q372
B
Q373
A
Q374
C
Q375
B
Q376
B
Q377
A
Q378
A
Q379
A
Q380
A
Q381
A
Q382
C
Q383
B
Q384
B
Q385
B
Q386
B
Q387
C
Q388
C
Q389
D
Q390
D
Q391
A
Q392
B
Q393
C
Q394
B
Q395
C
Q396
A
Q397
C
Q398
B
Q399
B
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